The Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB) has released a document verification notice for candidates who appeared in the OMR-based written examination for the post of Stock Assistant. Here’s everything you need to know about the JKSSB Stock Assistant DV 2024.
The JKSSB Stock Assistant Document Verification Notice is issued for candidates who are falling under the consideration zone for the posts of Stock Assistant in the Animal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department. The notice contains details about the document verification schedule, venue, and the required documents.
Follow these steps to check the Merit List PDF for the Stock Assistant Document Verification:
Visit the official website of JKSSB.
Look for the latest notifications section or the recruitment section.
Find the link to download the Merit List PDF for the Stock Assistant posts.
Click on the link to open the PDF file.
Search for your name and roll number in the merit list.
Note down the document verification schedule and venue.
Required Documents for Document Verification
Candidates need to produce the following documents in original along with one set of self-attested copies before the designated Document Verification Committee:
Copy of Online Application Forms.
Two passport size recent color photographs.
One original photo ID Proof (Aadhar card/Voter Card/Pan Card/Passport, etc.).
Date of Birth Certificate (10th Diploma/Marks card).
Valid Category Certificate, if belonging to reserved categories.
Domicile Certificate.
Marks Sheet of Matric with Science Subject.
Bonafide certificate issued by the Controller/Registrar of the concerned Institute/Board for candidates who obtained the qualification from outside the UT of J&K.
Checklist sheet/form (as per Annexure-D).
Order of preferences for various items against advertisement notification No. 04 of 2021 (as per Annexure-E).
JKBopee has invited online applications for JKCET from the eligible and desirous candidates
of UT of J&K / Ladakh for appearing in the Common Entrance Test (CET Engineering)-2024
for admission to Bachelor of Engineering & Technology Courses in
Government/Private Colleges of UT of J&K for the academic session 2024.
NOTE:The candidates appearing/who have appeared in the 12th Class examination (Annual Session 2021) can also apply and appear in the BOPEE test provisionally.
Online Submission of Forms
14-03-2024
Last Date of Form Submission
06-04-2024
JKCET Admit card
Download once uploaded
JKBOPEE Website
jkbopee.gov.in
JKCET Result
Download PDF
Application fee
1200/-
important dates for JKCET
Submission of Online Application Forms for JKCET
The interested candidates have to upload the following scanned original / self-attested certificates in PDF format with size from 100-200 KB along with the Application Form:
Domicile Certificate of UT of J&K/UT of Ladakh, however in respect of Candidates of UT of Ladakh, ST certificate issued by the Competent Authority of Ladakh.
Qualifying (10+2) marks certificate.
meanwhile, Date of Birth Certificate(Matriculation issued by the Board) and Reserved category certificate, if any.
Also, TFW certificate on the prescribed form.
Syllabus for JKCET Entrance Exam
The entrance test is based on the courses of study and syllabi of 12th class, Additionally, It is given as under along with broad weightage of each subject in the question paper of the Entrance Test. Note: moreover, The marks distribution given in the syllabus is only illustrative, It will not accrue any right to the candidate, if this distribution of marks is not strictly reflected in the question paper.
be a Domicile of UT of J&K/UT of Ladakh as the case may be, however in respect of Candidates of UT of Ladakh, ST certificate issued by the Competent Authority of Ladakh shall be treated as Domicile Certificate;
have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination from a recognized statutory Board with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics as compulsory subjects and with at least 50% marks for Open Merit Category candidates including the Children of Defense Personnel, Children of Para Military Force, Children of J&K Police Personnel and candidates possessing outstanding proficiency in sports and 40% marks for candidates belonging to SC/ST and Other Socially and Educationally Backward classes;
be at least 17 years old on 3l December 2021.
Important instructions:
A candidate can fill only one application form, meanwhile, Multiple applications from the same candidate will lead to rejection of candidature.
Keep scanned copy of photographs , signatures and other relevant documents handy before you fill online application form.
On successful submission of form an application number will be generated. Note that number for future references.
Submit fees online.
Further, Upload all relevant documents.
Moreover, Application will be considered complete only when application form is filled ,payment is done and relevant documents are uploaded .Incomplete applications will be rejected
Also, Print application form. Keep it for future references.
meanwhile, Application No. and Date of birth is required for making payment, uploading of documents, checking application status etc.
No document at this stage need to be submitted to BOPEE.
Candidates can edit their submitted application form before the last date of the advertisement, in case of any difficulty please contact JKBOPEE
Help Desk: The applicants can also contact the Help Desk of l.T. Section of the BOPEE during the office hours and working days only on 0194-2437647 / 0194-2433590 / 0191-2479371 / 0191-2470102. Also email-at helpdeskjakbopee@gmall.com for any assistance/guidance in this regard.
The applicants are advised to fill up the online Application Forms on their own or through a responsible person.
furthermore, The applicants can also avail the services at of Common Service Centers’ of J&K for filling up online Application Forms at nominal charges.
They can also avail of the services at any National Informatics Centre located at the office of the Deputy Commissioner of the concerned District.
How to edit JKCET application form?
JKBOPEE will open a separate window once the last date for form submission is end, moreover students can edit their Application form easily after entering their Application number and DOB.
JKCET - Frequently Asked Questions
What is the eligibility for JKCET 2024?
A candidates should have minimum of 17 years as on January 1, 2024. Candidates should have completed their 10+2 or equivalent examination with PCM and English
How to apply for JKCET 2024?
Go to JKCET 2024 official website jkbopee.gov.in, then click on application form. Fill all required details, upload images and make payment to complete the submission of JKCET application form 2024.
What is the last date for JKCET 2024 application form?
March 1, 2024 is the last date for JKCET 2024 application form submission and online payment.
How to Check JKCET Result 2024?
Students can check their JKCET result 2024 along with rank and secured marks in each section on the official website by entering hall ticket number.
Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay has recently released the JEE Advanced 2024 syllabus on the JEE Advance’s newly launched official website at jeeadv.ac.in. Candidates can download the PDF format of the syllabus that has details for all the three subjects, includes physics, chemistry and mathematics.
This year IIT Bombay has revised the syllabus for the JEE Advanced 2024 examination and the revised syllabus has only been uploaded It is available on the Link given below here:
The JEE Advanced syllabus has included all the topics which will be part of the JEE Advanced 2024 examination, for which dates are yet to be announced by the National Testing Agency yet. It should be noted that IIT Bombay will be conducting the JEE Advanced Exams this year.
JEE Advanced Subject – Wise Syllabus 2024
As per the syllabus, chemistry’s syllabus is divided into three parts: physical chemistry, organic chemistry and inorganic chemistry. In the paper, students will have some general topics from the physical chemistry stream that they have studied in class 11 and 12. These topics includes, concept of atoms and molecules, dalton’s atomic theory, mole concept, chemical formulae, balanced chemical equations, neutralisation and displacement reactions.
Other topics from the stream are gaseous and liquid States, atomic structure and chemical bonding, energetics, chemical equilibrium, electro chemistry and so on. Further for the inorganic chemistry portion of the paper will include questions on isolation, preparation and properties of various metals and compounds.
Further, definitions and characteristics of 3D series transition elements, ores and minerals and extractive metallurgy are also part of the syllabus. Preparation, properties and reactions of alkanes and alkynes are part of the organic chemistry syllabus along with various other topics.
The syllabus of mathematics is the same as last year, having topics of algebra, matrics, probability, trigonometry, analytical geometry, calculus, and vectors. Six fields of physics are included in the physics syllabus, which are general physics, mechanics, thermal physics, electricity and magnetism, optics and modern physics.
Syllabus for written test of junior staff nurse posts 2024, jkssb syllabi for staff nurse posts, download syllabus for jkssb nurse vacancies in PDF.
JKSSB Updates syllabus for junior grade nurse posts in GMC Jammu, GMC Srinagar and various districts.
Revised syllabi for staff nurse by jkssb for the written examination.
Topics
Marks
Anatomy and Physiology
10
Community Health Nursing – I
10
Fundamentals of Nursing
25
Nutrition
05
Medical Surgical Nursing – I
10
Pediatric Nursing
10
Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing
10
Medical Surgical Nursing – 2
10
Community Health Nursing – 2
10
Midwifery
20
Total
120 Marks
➢ Anatomy and Physiology
Total marks: 10
Introduction to anatomical terms
Organization of body cells tissues .organs. systems membranes and glands
Skeletal system
Muscular system
Cardio-vascular system
Respiratory system
Digestive system
Excretory system
Nervous system
Endocrine system
Sense organs
Reproductive system
➢ Community health nursing
Total marks: 10
Introduction to Community Health and Community Health Nursing
community health nursing process
Health Assessment
Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiological methods
Family Health Nursing care
Family health care settings
Referral systems
Records and Reports
Minor Ailments
➢ Fundamentals of Nursing
Total marks: 25
Unit – 1 Introduction to Nursing
Unit – 2 Nursing care of the patient / Client
Bed and Bed Making
Maintenance of therapeutic environment Temperature, Light, noise, and humidity. Psycho-Social Environment
Nursing Process and Nursing Care Plan
Discharging a patient
Unit – III Basic Nursing Care and Needs of the patient
Nutritional needs.
Elimination needs
Safety needs
Activity and Exercises
Physical Comforts
Moving, shifting, and Lifting of patient
Unit – IV Assessment of patient / Client
Physical Assessment
Physiological Assessment
Unit – V Therapeutic Nursing Care and Procedures Asepsis
Care and Sterilization of:
Care of Respiratory System
Care of Gastro Intestinal Treact
Care of Genito Urinary System
Care of Skin and Mucous Membranes
Unit – IV Basic Needs and Care in Special conditions
Dying patient
Unit – VII Introduction to Pharmacology
Nutrition | marks: 5
Unit – I Introduction
Unit – II Classification of food
Medical-surgical nursing
Introduction
Nursing Assessment
Patho Physiological Mechanism of Disease
Altered Immune Response
Clinical Pharmacology
Nurse’s role in Management of Fluids, Electrolyte and Acid Based Balance
Management of patients in pain
Operation Theater Technique Physical Environment
Theatre Technique
Preparation of Theatre equipment & Supplies Management of patient undergoing surgery
Intra operative Management
Post- operative management – Immediate and Routine Nursing management of patient with impaired respiratory function and gaseous exchange
Nursing Management of Patients with Digestive and Gastrointestinal Disorders
Nursing Management of Patients with Metabolic and Endocrine
Disorders
Nursing Management of patients with renal and urinary
disorders
Nursing Management of patient with Neurological disorders
Nursing Management of patients with disorders of connective
tissue collagen disorders.
Nursing Management of the Elderly
Emergency Management
➢ Pediatric Nursing
Introduction
The Newborn
The Healthy Child
The Infant
Health Promotion during infancy
The Toddler
The Pre-Schooler
The School ager
The Adolescent The Sick Child
Nursing interventions adaptations in nursing care of sick child Behavioral Disorders and common Health Problems during Childhood, their prevention, Medical and Nursing Management.
Infancy
Early Childhood
Middle Childhood
Later Childhood Children with congenital Defects / Mal formations Children with various disorders and diseases Welfare of Children
➢ Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing (Marks 10)
Introduction
History of Psychiatry
Mental Health Assessment
Community Mental Health
Psychiatric Nursing Management
Mental disorders and Nursing Interventions.
Functional Mental Disorders
Definition, etiology, signs, symptoms, medical and nursing management of: Bio-Psychosocial Therapies
Nursing management of patients receiving: • Unit-2 Nursing Management of patients with diseases of male genitorurinary tract. • Unit-3 Nursing management of patients with disorders of breast. • Unit -4 Nursing management of patients with diseases and disorders of integumentary system. • Unit -5 Nursing management of patients with ophthalmic disorders and diseases
Hospital cornea retrieval: • Unit -6 Nursing management of patients with disorders and diseases of ear, nose, and throat. • Unit -7 Nursing management of patients with cardio vascular ,circulatory and hematological disorders.
Unit -8 Nursing management of patient with communicable diseases
Diseases caused by:
• Unit – 9 Nursing Management of patients with sexually transmitted diseases • Unit – 10 Nursing Management of patients with Musculo-skeletal Disorders and diseases. • Unit – 11 Emergency and disaster Nursing.
Community health nursing – 10 marks
• Unit – I Health system in India (Organizational set-up) • Unit – II Health care services in India • Unit – III Health Planning in India • Unit – IV Specialized community Health Services and nurse’s role • Unit – V Nurse’s Role in National Health Programmes • Unit – VI Demography and family welfare demography
Family Welfare • Unit – VII Health Team
Role of nursing personnel at various levels • Unit – VIII Vital Health Statistics
➢ Midwifery (Marks 20)
• Unit – I Introduction • Unit – II Reproductive system • Unit – III Embryology and foetal development • Unit – IV Nursing Management of Pregnant Women
Investigations. • Unit – V Nursing Management of women in Labour
A. First Stage of Labour
B. Second Stage of Labour
C. Third Stage of Labour
D. Conduct of Home Delivery • Unit – VI Nursing Management of Baby at birth • Unit – VII Nursing management of Mother during puerperium • Unit – VIII Complications of pregnancy and its management • Unit – IX High Risk pregnancy and its management
Ostemalacia, Sexually Transmitted Diseases, AIDS. • Unit – X High Risk Labour and its management • Unit – XI Complications of Puerperium and its management • Unit – XII Obstetric operations • Unit – XIII Drugs used in obstetrics • Unit – XIV Ethical and legal aspects related to Midwifery and Gynecological Nursing.
> Clinical Experience
Download JKSSB Junior grade staff nurse syllabus, pdf format of staff nurse syllabi 2024 ➢ PDF Syllabus
JKSSB Class IV Question Paper 2021, This question paper is also useful for Junior Assistant, Accounts Assistants, Driver, Compiler Aspirants.
jkssb previous year / old question papers, download pdf.
Now Prepare for Any JKSSB Examination with the help of this Question Paper also Download JKSSB Class Paper in PDF.
Date: 27-02-2021
Section 1 – Basic Mathematics JKSSB Question Paper
If P & Q together can complete a job in 3 days while P alone can do the same job in 12 days, then how many days would be required by Q to do the job alone?
3 days
4 days
6 days
12 days
2. A boy gets 30% of the minimum marks and fails by 16 marks while another boy gets 44% marks and gets 8 marks more than the minimum required marks.
what are the marks required to pass the exam?
40%
41%
42%
39%
3. The average of the four successive odd numbers is 34. what would be the value of the smallest of these numbers?
31
33
35
37
4. A, B, and C can do a piece of work in 36, 54. and 72 days respectively. they started the work but A left 8 days before the completion of the work while B left 12 days before the completion.
The number of days for which C worked is
4
8
12
24
5. The walls and the roof of the room 10ft in length, 8ft in width and 8ft in height is to be painted. how much will it cost at 5₹ per square ft?
₹ 1600
2000
2200
2400
JKSSB Percentage Questions
6. A man recieves 20% increase in his salary. If his new salary is ₹ 24,600/-, then his old salary was
20, 000/-
20, 500/-
21, 200/-
21, 500/-
7. Which number must be added to each of the numbers 7 and 13 so that the resultant numbers will be in the ratio 2:3?
1
2
3
5
8. A cuboid whose length is equal to its width has a volume of 24 cubic feet. If the height of the cuboid is 1.5 feet, then what is the length of the cuboid?
4 feet
5 feet
6 feet
8 feet
9. If a student had five hours of homework and has worked for three and a half hours, what part of his homework is yet to be done?
1/3 part
2/3 part
3/10 part
2/5 part
JKSSB Previous year question paper
10. In the class of 125 students, 70 passed in mathematics, 55 passed in statistics and 30 passed in both. what is the probability that a student selected at random from the class has passed in only one subject?
13/25
3/25
17/25
8/25
11. The least number which when divided by 12, 15, 20 or 54, leaves a remainder of 4 in each case is?
536
544
224
504
12. Dialog a telephone number, an old person forgets last three digits, remembering only that these digits are different, he dialed at random. what is the chance that the number dialed is correct?
1/1000
1/720
9/70
1/840
13. The average weight of eight boxes is increased by 2.5kg when some goods are added to one of the boxes. The weight of goods added to this box is.
15 kg
10 kg
20 kg
NOT determined
14. If the price of an article increases by 495 and the sale of that article decreases by 21%, then what is the approximate effect on collection?
15%
18%
21%
28%
15. A card is drawn from a pack of 100 cards numbered 1 to 100. What is the probability that a square number is drawn?
1/5
2/5
1/5
3/5
Practice JKSSB Math Questions now
16. Sum of the ages of father and son is 74. After 8 years father will be twice as old as son. The present age(in years) of the father is?
57
54
52
42
17. if 30% of A = 0.25 of B = 1/5th part of C, then A:B:C =
10:12:15
10:13:17
10:12:13
10:12:17
18. The Average age of a group of friends is 32 years. One more friend of age 25 years joined the group. How many friends are there in the group now if the sum of their ages is 249 years?
5
6
8
9
19. 5 years ago, Bharti’s mother was 3 times as old as Bharti. After 6 years she will be twice as old as Bharti. Present age (in years) of Bharti is
43
40
28
16
20. The length of a room is 15 m and its breadth is double its height. if the area of four walls of the room is 250 sq.m, Breadth of the room is:
5 m
8 m
10 m
19 m
Section – 2 Basic English (JKSSB Class IV Question Paper)
21. Fill in the blanks with the correct option:
Comets _ at regular intervals.
appears
appearing
appear
is appearing
22. Choose the antonym of the underlined word.
The conservation she had with her long lost friend was acrid.
Sour
Sweet
Acrimonious
pungent
23. Fill in the blanks with correct option
I find it very tiring to do _ same job day after day
No article
An
A
The
24. Identify the synonym of the italicized word
The human ear lets in a very limited range of frequencies
allows
looks into
gives up
disregards
25. Fill in the blanks with the correct option
John is never _ silent sepectptor in any argument he witnesses
A
An
Fewer
much
26. Choose the word that is spelt correctly and fill the blanks
The house they inherted belongs to _ grand father.
there
theyr
their
they’re
27. find the antonym of the underline word
I stopped a man on the road side and asked him for help.
interrupted
executed
chased
navigated
28. Choose the correct preposition to complete the sentence
they are sitting _ the bench
above
on
below
across
29. Fill in the blanks with the correct option
The film _ new york next week
open
opened
opens
opening
JKSSB Old Question Paper – Download PDF
PDF is given at the end of this Article/Paper.
30. Change the given sentence into a complex sentence
Follow this diet regularly and you will soon loose weight
regular dighting will lead to weight loss
if you follow this diet regularly, you will soon lose weight
following this diet regularly helps to lose weight
follow this diet regularly or you will not lose weight
31. identify the synonym of the under lined word
the heat gradually dissipates into the atmosphere
disappears
incorporates
dissolves
solidifies
32. fill in the blank with the correct option
_ cost of _ new scheme outweighs its supposed benefits
A, the
The, an
The, The
No article, an
33. Choose the word that is spelt correctly and fill in the blanks
physical _ is important for good health
exarcise
exercise
exccercise
excersise
34. fill in the blanks with the correct option
Jain wanted _ camers to take _ picturers of her friuends on graduation day, but now she doesnot nned it.
A, much
An, many
A, few
A, some
Section – 3 | JKSSB Exam Paper, General Awareness and Science
35. As of September 2020, among the following is the vice chairperson of NITI Aayog?
Rajiv Kumar
Bibek Debroy
V.K. Saraswat
Arvind Panagariya
36. The Branch of medicine which deals with the study of the digestive system and its disorders is:
Electrology
Entomology
Gastroenterology
Genealogy
37. In february 2020, Asia’s largest biotechnology and life-sciences summit BioAsia 2020, was held in which of the following cities of India?
Hyderabad
Bangalore
Vijaywada
Chennai
38. As of september 2020, the Defence Secretary of india is:
Ajay Kumar
Sanjay Mitra
Shashi Kant Sharma
Vijay Singh
39. Water pollution occurs when harmful substances like microorganisms contaminate a water body degrading the water quality and rendering it toxic to humans or the environment. which one of the following diseases is NOT due to contamination of water?
Hepatitis E
Chickenpox
Filariasis
Amoebiasis
40. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj founded and consolidated the Maratha Empire in 1674 with which of the following places as its capital?
Pratapgad
Daulatabad
Raigad
Sinhagad
41. Who won the FIFFA World Cup Golden BOOT award in 2018?
Denis Cheryshev
Harry Kane
Cristiano Ronaldo
Romelu Lukaku
42. A traditional dress, won during winter and a popular from of dressing amongst both men and women in the kashmir region is:
Pheran
Taranga
Angarkha
Mushaik
43. Identify the mobile app launched by the Government of India for tracking COVID 19.
PharmEasy
Aarogya Setu
Covid Monitor App
Corona Kavach
44. The process through which the physical state of matter changes from the gaseous phase into the liquid phase is called:
Oxidation
Evaporation
Sublimation
Condensation
JKSSB Exam for Class IV, Junior Assistants, Compiler, Driver
45. Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden dubbed as Asia’s Largest tulip garden is situated on the foothills of the Zabarwan mountain range on the banks of:
Wular Lake
Nigeen Lake
Dal Lake
Mansabal Lake
46. The Khajuraho temples dedicated to the Hinduism and Jainism were built by the rulers of which of the following dynasties?
Rashtrakuta Dynasty
Gupta Dynasty
Satavahana Dynasty
Chandela Dynasty
47. Vitamins are substances that our body needs to grow and develop normally. The deficiency of which of the following vitamins leads to Night Blindness?
A
D
K
E
48. Match the following Sports Person with the Sports they played:
Sports Person
Sports they played
A. Major Dhyan Chand
1. Chess
B. Mary Kom
2. Cricket
C. Sachin Tendulkar
3. Hockey
D. Viswanathan Anand
4. Boxing
3-A, B-2, C-1, D-4
A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Important MCQs for JKSSB Exam Preparation
49. Which of the following regions is one of the prominent Mica reserves of India?
Hazaribagh Plateau
Bastar Plateau
Aravalli range
Nicobar Islands
50. The Indian Military Academy (IMA) is situated in the capital of which of the following states of India?
Maharastra
Jharkhand
Uttar Pradesh
Uttarakhand
51. The Surajkund Mela which showcases the richness and diversity of the handicrafts, handlooms and cultural fabric of India is organized by which state every year?
Rajasthan
Haryana
Punjab
Himachal Pradesh
52. The Indus Water Treaty between India and Pakistan brokered by the World Bank was signed in 1960. The treaty was signed by India’s Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistan’s President
Farooq Leghari
Fazal ilahi Chaudhry
Mohammad Ayub Khan
Iskandar Mirza
53. The capital city of which of the following states is located in Chotanagpur Plateau?
Andra Pradesh
Jharkhand
Haryana
Uttar Pradesh
54. Which of the Following combinations of fabric and its originating state is matches CORRECTLY?
Muga – Uttar Pradesh
Pochampally – Kerala
Chanderi – Madhya Pradesh
Muslin – Odisha
JKSSB – Practice / Test Questions
JKSSB Mock Test Question Paper
55. The Capital city of Rajasthan famous for its architecture and rich culture is:
Jaipur
Jahalwar
Jaisalmer
Jodhpur
56. Which of the following languages mainly spoken in the Jammu region is included in the English Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Bodo
Gojri
Dogri
Sindhi
57. Which of the following sarees were first produced in Madhya Pradesh?
Paithani sarees
Kanchipuram sarees
Maheshwari sarees
Bandhani Sarees
58. Dandiya, a popular folk dance from originated in which of the following states in India?
Gujarat
Haryana
Punjab
Assam
59. What is the unit used to measure the quantity of ozone content in the atmosphere?
Einstein unit
Poise
Dobson unit
Becquerel
60. Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary in Odisha is a conservation site for:
King Cobra
Blue-footed booby
Saltwater crocodile
Indian elephant
61. Who among the following emperors of the Gupta dynasty earned the title Vikramaditya?
Samudragupta
Chandragupta II
Kumaragupta I
Narasimhagupta
62. Who among the following players scripted history by becoming the first Indian to win the badminton world federation (BWF) World Tour Finals in 2019?
Saina Nehwal
P. V. Sindhu
Srikanth Kidambi
Parupalli Kashyap
63. Which of the following Indian leaders was fatally injured by a British Sergeant while protesting against the Simon commission?
Lala Lajpat Rai
Bhagat Singh
Sukhdev Thapar
Khudiram Bose
64. Which of the following liquid insecticides is used for Malaria Vector Control as per WHO guidelines?
Sodium chloride
Sodium bicarbonate
DDT
Acetic Acid
JKSSB Sports Questions
65. Who among the following won the 2020 Australian Open Tennis tournament in the Women’s category?
Simona halep
Sofia kenin
Caroline wozniacki
Naomi osaka
66. The odorant added to LPG to identify the leakage is:
Chlorine
Ammonia
Dimethyl sulfide
Ethyl mercaptan
67. Which of the following cricket teams won the 2019 – 20 Ranji Trophy?
Mumbai
Rajasthan
Vidarbha
Saurashtra
68. The Jamia Masjid of Srinagar, a fine example of Indo-Saracenic architecture was constructed under the patronage of:
Sultan hajji khan
Jahangir
Sultan Sikander Butshikan
Aurangzeb
69. Nine degree channel separates which of the following group of islands?
Andaman and Nicobar
Laccadives and Minicoy
Great Andaman and Little Andaman
Daman and Diu
70. The Edicts of Ashoka are a collection of inscriptions on the pillars, cave walls written using different scripts. Which one of the following options is NOT a script used in these inscriptions?
Brahmi
Kharoshthi
Aramaic
Nagari
71. Amarnath pilgrims have to go through which of the following passes to reach the shrine of Shri Amarnathji?
Banihal Pass
Mahagunas Pass
Zojila Pass
Baralacha La Pass
72. Which of the following wildlife reserves best known as the home of the Hangul, or Kashmir stag is located near the city of Srinagar?
Dachigam National Park
Nandini Wildlife Sanctuary
Overa Aru Wildlife Sanctuary
Ramnagar National Park
73. Bleeding of Gums and delayed healing of wounds is caused due to the deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
A
B
C
D
74. Kuchipudi is the classical dance form of which of the following sates of India?
Karnataka
Kerala
Maharastra
Andhra Pradesh
Section – 4 Basic Reasoning JKSSB Class IV Question Paper
75. Select the Alternative that will make the second pair analogous to the first pair given as:
Grass : Lawn :: Crop : ___
Airport
Terrace
Field
House
76. What number should come next in this series?
2, 3, 6, 7, 10, 11, 14, 15, 18, 19, 22, ____
12
13
15
23
77. As per the code represented below, what is the coded string for Knowledge?
Code
m
e
c
o
h
i
Q
r
s
a
x
f
z
d
g
p
k
Letter
O
R
L
D
W
Y
E
K
T
C
G
N
I
S
H
A
B
ffmhkQyxQ
rfmhcQoxQ
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78. Rajan is the son of Rupa’s mother-in-law’s only son Rishi. How is Rishi related to Rajan?
Brother
Son
Uncle
Father
79. What number should come next in this series?
85, 10, 75, 14, __
16
65
20
22
80. Select the alternative that will replace the question mark in the analogy
Composite : 100 :: Prime : ?
9
12
23
39
We have also made its PDF File which you can download from here, Furthermore This PDF has more questions (100).
JKSSB Medical Record Technician Syllabus PDF 2024, Download Syllabus for JKSSB Medical Record technician form the PDF link given blow in the syllabi article.
GENERAL ENGLISH (Marks 20)
Essay Writing
Precis Writing
Letter Writing
Idioms & Phrases
Expansion of passages
Comprehension of given passages
Grammar:
Parts of Speech : Nouns, Adjective, Verb, Adverb, Preposition, etc
The official syllabus for Junior/Jr statistical assistant is now uploaded in the article, you can also download its PDF from the LINK in the bottom of this article.
Topics
Marks
General Knowledge and Current Affairs
15 Marks
General Knowledge with special Reference to the UT of J&K
10 Marks
Statistical Methods and Applied Statistics
25 Marks
General Economics
25 Marks
Computer Applications
15 Marks
Information Technology
15 Marks
Mathematics
15 Marks
Total
120 Marks
General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Indian History with special reference to Freedom struggle Languages & Culture
International Organisation- UNO, WHO, WTO, IMF, UNESCO, UNCTAD etc.
Important Regional Organizations and Blocs- BRICS, OPEC, ASEAN, SAARC, BIMSTEC, G-20, G-7 etc.
Sustainable Development Goals
Communicable Diseases- cure and prevention NCDC- COVID-19 – SOPs, Advisories, Guidelines etc.
World famous Awards
The world of Sports
Climate & Crops in India
Political & Physical divisions of world & India
Important Rivers & Lakes in India
Current Events of National and International importance
General Knowledge with special Reference to the UT of J&K
Popular names of personalities and their achievements/ Contribution
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE WITH SPECIAL REFERENCE TO UT of J&K
20 Marks
General Science
20 Marks
Mental Ability Test
20 Marks
Computer Applications
20 Marks
JKSSB Syllabus for Written test Junior Supervisor posts, Sub Auditor Syllabi for an upcoming examination, download jkssb Jr Supervisor syllabus – Written-test Sub Auditor Study material also available. or else download the JKSSB Junior Supervisor syllabi PDF.
Total marks
120
Time
2 hours
General English
Tenses
Rearranging of jumbled sentences.
Narration
Models
Articles
Comprehension with blanks to be filled in with
Phrases
Pronouns
Homonyms/homophones.
Clauses
Synonyms and antonyms
Pairs of words and their use in meaningful sentences.
Idioms and phrases.
Uses of Prepositions.
Active & Passive Voice
Current Knowledge and Current Affairs
Indian History with special reference to the Freedom struggle
First in the world (Adventure, Sports, Discoveries)
First in India (Adventure, Sports, Discoveries)
Popular Personalities (Politics, Scientific discoveries, Geographical, Sports, History)
The Newspaper world – (Current Dailies & Weeklies of India)
Languages & Culture
International Organisations- UNO, WHO, WTO, IMF, UNESCO, UNCTAD etc.
Important Regional Organizations and Blocs- BRICS, OPEC, ASEAN,
Waves, light as a wave, Sound waves, Transverse and longitudinal waves.
Structure of Atom
Solids, Liquids, and Gases(Basics)
Life processes: Nutrition and its types, Respiration, Transportation of water, food, and minerals in plants.
Vitamins- diseases related to vitamin deficiency.
Environmental pollution.
Ecosystem – Its components, Food chains, and Food webs.
Ozone layer, its depletion, Green House Effect.
Importance of water in life
Mental Ability Test
Number Series
Letter series.
Coding decoding.
Direction sense.
Blood relations.
Mathematical reasoning.
Speed, Distance, and Time.
Statements and conclusions.
Logical Reasoning.
Mental Reasoning.
Computer Applications
Fundamentals of computer sciences Hardware & Software Input and output devices Operating system M.S Word, M.S Excel, M.S Acess, and Powerpoint Presentation E_mail & Internet
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has officially released the results for the Civil Services Mains 2023 examination. This eagerly awaited announcement brings both relief and anticipation for candidates who appeared for the exam. The UPSC Mains 2023 result is a crucial milestone in the journey toward the coveted civil services.
Brief Overview of UPSC Mains 2023 Result
The UPSC Mains 2023 result signifies the culmination of months of preparation and hard work for aspirants. It is a gateway to the next stage of the selection process, the interview round, where candidates have the opportunity to present their skills and knowledge in person.
Importance of UPSC Mains Results
The importance of the UPSC Mains results cannot be overstated. These results determine the candidates eligible for the interview stage, bringing them one step closer to realizing their dream of serving the nation through the civil services.
UPSC 2023 Result Announcement
Release Date and Time
The Commission has released the UPSC Mains 2023 result on [mention date and time]. The announcement comes after the successful completion of the main examination, held from September 15 to 24.
Direct Link for Result Checking
Candidates can conveniently check their results by following a simple process. The direct link to the result PDF is available on the official UPSC website (upsc.gov.in).
Expected Date for UPSC Interview
With the UPSC Mains results out, candidates can expect the interview round to take place between February and May 2024, marking a crucial phase in the selection process.
How to Check UPSC Result 2023
Step-by-step Guide
Candidates can check their results by entering their mobile number on the official UPSC website. The “What’s New” section will feature the UPSC Civil Service (IAS) exam result link post-release. After clicking, candidates can search for their roll number in the UPSC Result PDF.
Importance of Roll Number
The roll number is a key identifier in the result PDF. If a candidate’s name or roll number is not found, it indicates non-selection for the UPSC 2023 interview stage.
Direct Link to Check UPSC 2023 Mains Result PDF
Providing Convenience to Candidates
For the ease of candidates, a direct link to the UPSC 2023 Mains Result PDF is available. The direct link ensures a hassle-free experience for candidates accessing their results.
Understanding UPSC 2023 Cutoff
Commission’s Policy on Cutoff
The UPSC does not release the cutoff along with the result to avoid unnecessary litigations. The cutoff is expected to be disclosed in May – June 2024, post the final result declaration.
B. Cutoff Release Timeline
The release of the cutoff marks plays a vital role in determining the qualification threshold for the interview stage.
UPSC 2023 Answer Key
Commission’s Approach to Prelims Answer Key
Unlike the preliminary exam, the UPSC does not release the Civil Service (IAS) prelims answer key after the main exam. The Commission follows a practice of releasing the answer key post the final result declaration.
Answer Key Release Timing
Candidates can anticipate the release of the answer key as an informative resource for future exam preparation.
UPSC 2023 Marks and Scorecard
Timeline for Marks and Scorecard Release
The marks and scorecard for UPSC 2023 will be released after the final result. Initially, the UPSC toppers’ scores will be disclosed, followed by the release of scorecards for all candidates.
Priority for UPSC Toppers
The priority given to UPSC toppers in releasing their scores first adds a layer of excitement and acknowledgment for their outstanding performance.
UPSC 2023 Vacancies
Overview of Vacancy Statistics
The UPSC released a remarkable 1,105 vacancies for the CSE 2023 exam, marking the highest number of vacancies in recent years. The increase in vacancies does not necessarily translate to a lower cutoff in the IAS main exam.
Correlation Between Vacancies and Cutoff
Understanding the correlation between the number of vacancies and the cutoff provides insights into the competitiveness of the examination.
In a significant development, the Government Medical College (GMC) in Srinagar has taken the decision to disengage 93 paramedical staff members who were serving on an academic arrangement basis. This move comes in response to the introduction of the J&K Medical & Dental Education (Appointment on Academic Arrangement Basis) Rules, 2009, which allowed the engagement of paramedical staff to address the shortage of technical personnel required for patient care and the smooth functioning of academic activities within the institution. However, considering the limitations imposed by the rules and the absence of any interim relief or direction from a court of law, the GMC Srinagar has made the decision to discontinue the services of these staff members with immediate effect.
The GMC Srinagar had been relying on the provision of engaging paramedical staff on an academic arrangement basis to bridge the gap in technical expertise required for patient care and to ensure the smooth conduct of academic activities. However, these engagements were always intended to be temporary, pending the fulfillment of regular recruitment procedures or promotions. The engagement of paramedical staff members was subject to their performance and conduct during the specified period.
Disengagement of Paramedical Staff
In light of the aforementioned rules, the GMC Srinagar has taken the decision to disengage 93 paramedical staff members who have completed the maximum tenure of six years on an academic arrangement basis and do not have any interim relief or direction from a court of law to continue their services in the institution. The decision, effective immediately, marks the end of their academic arrangement appointments and paves the way for the adjustment of newly selected candidates.
The disengagement of these paramedical staff members should be seen as a necessary step in line with the regulations and rules governing such appointments. The intent is to ensure that the recruitment process is conducted in a fair and transparent manner, allowing qualified individuals to take up these positions through regular selection or promotion procedures.
As the GMC Srinagar moves forward, it is anticipated that steps will be taken to address the ongoing shortage of technical staff, exploring options to recruit qualified individuals through regular selection procedures, and promoting professional growth and development within the institution.
